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603 Seren aus dem Raum Frankfurt am Main wurden in 12 verschiedenen Einzelkollektiven mit einem "in house" IFT mit latenten Antigenen und einem rekombinanten Prototyp ELISA mit dem LANA und K8.1-Protein auf Antikörper gegen das Humane Herpesvirus Typ 8 (HHV-8) ± auch bekannt als Kaposi-Sarkom-assoziiertes Herpesvirus (KSHV) ±getestet. Untersucht wurden (Risiko)gruppen wie HIV-seropositive Männer und Frauen, HIV-seronegative homosexuelle bzw. bisexuelle Männer, Patienten mit Kaposi-Sarkom, Transplantationspatienten und Kinder mit Hämophilie. Zur Abschätzung von Kreuzreaktionenund anderen Störungen der Testsysteme wurden Patienten mit akuten bzw. abgelaufenen EBV-Infektionen,HHV-6-seropositive Patienten, Rheumafaktor-positive Probanden und Frauen mit primärer biliärer Zirrhose(PBC) untersucht. Dreiundfünfzig diskrepante Probenwurden mit kommerziellen IFTs mit latenten bzw. lyti-schen Antigenen nachgetestet.Hohe HHV-8-SeropraÈvalenzen wurden bei HIV-Infizierten ohne (15,7 % bei Frauen, 23,3 % bei Männern)und insbesondere mit Kaposi-Sarkomen (100 %) gefunden. Eine geschlechtsabhängige Verteilung der Seroprävalenz bei den HIV-seropositiven Patienten wurde nicht festgestellt. Bei Blutspendern wurde eine HHV-8-Durchseuchung von 3 % (im ¹in-house-IFTª), bei Hämophilen von 0 % und bei Transplantationspatienten von 9,1 % ermittelt. Kreuzreaktionen mit Antikörpern gegen andere Herpesviren wie EBV und HHV-6 schienen die Tests nicht zu beeinflussen, während sich tendenziell eine erhöhte Anzahl reaktiver Proben bei Patienten mit Autoimmunantikörpern (Rheumafaktor-positive Patienten und Patientinnen mit PBC) zeigte. Insgesamt stimmten die Ergebnisse des rekombinanten ELISA mit denen des "in house"-IFT im Gesamtkollektiv gut überein. Unterschiedliche Ergebnisse fanden sich in den Einzelkollektiven, insbesondere bei Rheumafaktor-positiven Patienten und solchen mit PBC.
In polarized cells, the multidrug resistance protein MRP2 is localized in the apical plasma membrane, whereas MRP1, another multidrug resistance protein (MRP) family member, is localized in the basolateral membrane. MRP1 and MRP2 are thought to contain an N-terminal region of five transmembrane segments (TMD0) coupled to 2 times six transmembrane segments via an intracellular loop (L0). We previously demonstrated for MRP1 that a mutant lacking TMD0 but still containing L0, called L0ΔMRP1, was functional and routed to the lateral plasma membrane. To investigate the role of the TMD0L0 region of MRP2 in routing to the apical membrane, we generated mutants similar to those made for MRP1. In contrast to L0ΔMRP1, L0ΔMRP2 was associated with an intracellular compartment, most likely endosomes. Co-expression with TMD0, however, resulted in apical localization of L0ΔMRP2 and transport activity. Uptake experiments with vesicles containing L0ΔMRP2 demonstrated that the molecule is able to transport LTC4. An MRP2 mutant without TMD0L0, ΔMRP2, was only core-glycosylated and localized intracellularly. Co-expression of ΔMRP2 with TMD0L0 resulted in an increased protein level of ΔMRP2, full glycosylation of the protein, routing to the apical membrane, and transport activity. Our results suggest that the TMD0 region is required for routing to or stable association with the apical membrane.
Factor XI (FXI), the zymogen of the blood coagulation protease FXIa, and the structurally homologous protein plasma prekallikrein circulate in plasma in noncovalent complexes with H-kininogen (HK). HK binds to the heavy chains of FXI and of prekallikrein. Each chain contains four apple domains (F1-F4 for FXI and P1-P4 for prekallikrein). Previous studies indicated that the HK-binding site on FXI is located in F1, whereas the major HK-binding site on prekallikrein is in P2. To determine the contribution of each FXI apple domain to HK-FXI complex formation, we examined binding of recombinant single apple domain-tissue plasminogen activator fusion proteins to HK. The order of affinity from highest to lowest is F2 F4 > F1 F3. Monoclonal antibodies against F2 are superior to F4 or F1 antibodies as inhibitors of HK binding to FXI. Antibody alphaP2, raised against prekallikrein, cross-reacts with FXI F2 and inhibits FXI-HK binding with an IC(50) of 8 nm. HK binding to a platelet-specific FXI variant lacking the N-terminal half of F2 is reduced > 5-fold compared with full-length FXI. A chimeric FXI molecule in which F2 is replaced by P2 is cleaved within P2 during activation by factor XIIa, resulting in greatly reduced HK binding capacity. In contrast, wild-type FXI is not cleaved within F2, and its binding capacity for HK is unaffected by factor XIIa. Our data show that HK binding to FXI involves multiple apple domains, with F2 being most important. The findings demonstrate a similarity in mechanism for FXI and prekallikrein binding to HK.
In PC12 cells, a well studied model for neuronal differentiation, an elevation in the intracellular cAMP level increases cell survival, stimulates neurite outgrowth, and causes activation of extracellular signal-regulated protein kinase 1 and 2 (ERK1/2). Here we show that an increase in the intracellular cAMP concentration induces tyrosine phosphorylation of two receptor tyrosine kinases, i.e. the epidermal growth factor (EGF) receptor and the high affinity receptor for nerve growth factor (NGF), also termed Trk(A). cAMP-induced tyrosine phosphorylation of the EGF receptor is rapid and correlates with ERK1/2 activation. It occurs also in Panc-1, but not in human mesangial cells. cAMP-induced tyrosine phosphorylation of the NGF receptor is slower and correlates with Akt activation. Inhibition of EGF receptor tyrosine phosphorylation, but not of the NGF receptor, reduces cAMP-induced neurite outgrowth. Expression of dominant-negative Akt does not abolish cAMP-induced survival in serum-free media, but increases cAMP-induced ERK1/2 activation and neurite outgrowth. Together, our results demonstrate that cAMP induces dual signaling in PC12 cells: transactivation of the EGF receptor triggering the ERK1/2 pathway and neurite outgrowth; and transactivation of the NGF receptor promoting Akt activation and thereby modulating ERK1/2 activation and neurite outgrowth.
Erratum in: Correction: Cyclic AMP induces transactivation of the receptors for epidermal growth factor and nerve growth factor, thereby modulating activation of MAP kinase, Akt, and neurite outgrowth in PC12 cells. Journal of biological chemistry 2020 Oct 23;295(43):14792. doi: 10.1074/jbc.AAC120.016177.
Ceramide levels are strongly increased by stimulation of renal mesangial cells with nitric oxide (NO). This effect was shown previously to be due to a dual action of NO, comprising an activation of sphingomyelinases and an inhibition of ceramidase activity. In this study we show that the NO-triggered inhibition of neutral ceramidase activity is paralleled by a down-regulation at the protein level. A complete loss of neutral ceramidase protein is obtained after 24 h of stimulation. Whereas the selective proteasome inhibitor lactacystin blocked NO-evoked ceramidase degradation, several caspase inhibitors were ineffective. Moreover, the NO-induced degradation is reversed by the protein kinase C (PKC) activator, 12-O-tetradecanoylphorbol-13-acetate (TPA), and also by the physiological PKC activators platelet-derived growth factor-BB (PDGF), angiotensin II and ATP, resulting in a normalization of neutral ceramidase protein as well as activity. In vivophosphorylation studies using 32Pi-labeled mesangial cells revealed that TPA, PDGF, angiotensin II, and ATP trigger an increased phosphorylation of the neutral ceramidase, which is blocked by the broad spectrum PKC inhibitor Ro-31 8220 but not by CGP 41251, which has a preferential action on Ca2+-dependent isoforms, thus suggesting the involvement of a Ca2+-independent PKC isoform. In vitro phosphorylation assays using recombinant PKC isoenzymes and neutral ceramidase immunoprecipitated from unstimulated mesangial cells show that particularly the PKC-δ isoform and to a lesser extent the PKC-α isoform are efficient in directly phosphorylating neutral ceramidase. In summary, our data show that NO is able to induce degradation of neutral ceramidase, thereby promoting accumulation of ceramide in the cell. This effect is reversed by PKC activation, most probably by the PKC-δ isoenzyme, which can directly phosphorylate and thereby prevent neutral ceramidase degradation. These novel regulatory interactions will provide therapeutically valuable information to target neutral ceramidase stability and subsequent ceramide accumulation.
Cytochrome P450 (CYP)-derived epoxyeicosatrienoic acids (EETs) are important modulators of endothelial cell homeostasis. We investigated the signaling pathway linking the activation of CYP 2C9 to enhanced endothelial cell proliferation. Overexpression of CYP 2C9 in cultured human endothelial cells markedly increased proliferation. This effect was paralleled by an up-regulation of the G1 phase regulatory protein, cyclin D1. The specific CYP 2C9 inhibitor, sulfaphenazole, prevented both the enhanced cell proliferation and up-regulation of cyclin D1. CYP 2C9 overexpression also decreased the activity of the c-Jun N-terminal kinase (JNK). Coexpression of wild type JNK with CYP 2C9 attenuated the CYP 2C9-induced increase in cyclin D1 expression and abolished the CYP 2C9-induced proliferation response. In contrast, cotransfecting dominant negative JNK with CYP 2C9 restored the CYP 2C9-mediated up-regulation of cyclin D1 and proliferation. The inactivation of JNK is linked to its dephosphorylation by dual specificity mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase phosphatases (MKPs). Overexpression of CYP 2C9 significantly increased the expression of MKP-1, as did incubation with 11,12-EET. These data demonstrate that the mitogenic effect of CYP 2C9 is due to the generation of EETs, which promote the MKP-1-mediated dephosphorylation and inactivation of JNK, effects ultimately culminating in the expression of cyclin D1 and endothelial cell proliferation.
Glycogen synthase kinase-3 couples AKT-dependent signaling to the regulation of p21Cip1 degradation
(2002)
Signaling via the phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K)/AKT pathway is crucial for the regulation of endothelial cell (EC) proliferation and survival, which involves the AKT-dependent phosphorylation of the DNA repair protein p21(Cip1) at Thr-145. Because p21(Cip1) is a short-lived protein with a high proteasomal degradation rate, we investigated the regulation of p21(Cip1) protein levels by PI3K/AKT-dependent signaling. The PI3K inhibitors Ly294002 and wortmannin reduced p21(Cip1) protein abundance in human umbilical vein EC. However, mutation of the AKT site Thr-145 into aspartate (T145D) did not increase its protein half-life. We therefore investigated whether a kinase downstream of AKT regulates p21(Cip1) protein levels. In various cell types, AKT phosphorylates and inhibits glycogen synthase kinase-3 (GSK-3). Upon serum stimulation of EC, GSK-3beta was phosphorylated at Ser-9. Site-directed mutagenesis revealed that GSK-3 in vitro phosphorylated p21(Cip1) specifically at Thr-57 within the Cdk binding domain. Overexpression of GSK-3beta decreased p21(Cip1) protein levels in EC, whereas the specific inhibition of GSK-3 with lithium chloride interfered with p21(Cip1) degradation and increased p21(Cip1) protein about 10-fold in EC and cardiac myocytes (30 mm, p < 0.001). These data indicate that GSK-3 triggers p21(Cip1) degradation. In contrast, stimulation of AKT increases p21(Cip1) via inhibitory phosphorylation of GSK-3.
We investigated the molecular mechanism of cyclic GMP-induced down-regulation of soluble guanylyl cyclase expression in rat aorta. 3-(5′-Hydroxymethyl-2′-furyl)-1-benzyl indazole (YC-1), an allosteric activator of this enzyme, decreased the expression of soluble guanylyl cyclase α1 subunit mRNA and protein. This effect was blocked by the enzyme inhibitor 4H-8-bromo-1,2,4-oxadiazolo(3,4-d)benz(b-1,4)oxazin-1-one (NS2028) and by actinomycin D. Guanylyl cyclase α1mRNA-degrading activity was increased in protein extracts from YC-1-exposed aorta and was attenuated by pretreatment with actinomycin D and NS2028. Gelshift and supershift analyses using an adenylate-uridylate-rich ribonucleotide from the 3′-untranslated region of the α1 mRNA and a monoclonal antibody directed against the mRNA-stabilizing protein HuR revealed HuR mRNA binding activity in aortic extracts, which was absent in extracts from YC-1-stimulated aortas. YC-1 decreased the expression of HuR, and this decrease was prevented by NS2028. Similarly, down-regulation of HuR by RNA interference in cultured rat aortic smooth muscle cells decreased α1 mRNA and protein expression. We conclude that HuR protects the guanylyl cyclase α1 mRNA by binding to the 3′-untranslated region. Activation of guanylyl cyclase decreases HuR expression, inducing a rapid degradation of guanylyl cyclase α1 mRNA and lowering α1 subunit expression as a negative feedback response.
The yeast F1F0-ATP synthase forms dimeric complexes in the mitochondrial inner membrane and in a manner that is supported by the F0-sector subunits, Su e and Su g. Furthermore, it has recently been demonstrated that the binding of the F1F0-ATPase natural inhibitor protein to purified bovine F1-sectors can promote their dimerization in solution (Çabezon, E., Arechaga, I., Jonathan P., Butler, G., and Walker J. E. (2000) J. Biol. Chem. 275, 28353–28355). It was unclear until now whether the binding of the inhibitor protein to the F1 domains contributes to the process of F1F0-ATP synthase dimerization in intact mitochondria. Here we have directly addressed the involvement of the yeast inhibitor protein, Inh1, and its known accessory proteins, Stf1 and Stf2, in the formation of the yeast F1F0-ATP synthase dimer. Using mitochondria isolated from null mutants deficient in Inh1, Stf1, and Stf2, we demonstrate that formation of the F1F0-ATP synthase dimers is not adversely affected by the absence of these proteins. Furthermore, we demonstrate that the F1F0-ATPase monomers present in su e null mutant mitochondria can be as effectively inhibited by Inh1, as its dimeric counterpart in wild-type mitochondria. We conclude that dimerization of the F1F0-ATP synthase complexes involves a physical interaction of the membrane-embedded F0 sectors from two monomeric complexes and in a manner that is independent of inhibitory activity of the Inh1 and accessory proteins.
Signal transducer and activator of transcription 6 (STAT6) regulates transcriptional activation in response to interleukin-4 (IL-4)-induced tyrosine phosphorylation by direct interaction with coactivators. The CREB-binding protein and the nuclear coactivator 1 (NCoA-1), a member of the p160/steroid receptor coactivator family, bind independently to specific regions of STAT6 and act as coactivators. In this study we show that an LXXLL motif in the STAT6 transactivation domain mediates the interaction with NCoA-1. Peptides representing this motif as well as antibodies generated against this motif inhibited STAT6/NCoA-1 interaction in glutathione S-transferase pulldown assays. Peptides derived from the STAT6 transactivation domain adjacent to the LXXLL motif as well as antibodies against these peptides showed no inhibitory effect. Mutagenesis of the LXXLL motif eliminated the STAT6/NCoA-1 interaction in vitro and in vivo, supporting the specific role of this motif in NCoA-1 binding. Importantly, mutagenesis of the STAT-LXXLL motif strongly diminished the IL-4-regulated activation of the endogenous STAT6 target gene eotaxin-3. Taken together, these results indicate that the STAT6-LXXLL-binding motif mediates the interaction with NCoA-1 in transcriptional activation and represents a new potential drug target for the inhibition of the STAT6 transactivation function in allergic diseases.
To analyze prospectively the interventional and clinical aspects of computed tomography-guided direct intratumoural injection of a novel chemotherapeutic administration and the parenchymal changes of tumour and necrosis in malignant liver tumours. Eight patients with 17 colorectal liver metastases were treated with a mean of 5.1 injections and nine patients with 13 hepatocellular carcinoma nodules with a mean of 3.1 treatments with computed tomography guided local applications of a novel cisplatin/epinephrine gel. This application provides a higher local and lower systemic drug concentration. Volumes of tumour and necrosis prior and after treatment were measured by computer generated volumetric analysis. Contrast enhanced studies verified pretherapeutic viable tumour volumes with a value of 77.4 ml in the metastases and 29.2 ml in the hepatocellular carcinoma nodules. Intratumoural drug application resulted in a significant increase of necrosis and a decrease in viable tumour volume to be 68.3 ml in metastases and 14.5 ml in hepatocellular carcinoma. Local therapy control rate for the follow up to 6 months was 38 and 71% for the group of metastases and hepatocellular carcinoma, respectively. Direct intratumoural injection of cisplatin/epinepthrine injectable gel is a feasible and good tolerated method and results in the development of a statistically significant increase in necrosis in malignant liver tumours. For hepatocellular carcinoma a higher local therapy control rate compared to colorectal metastases can be reported.
The proliferative stimulus of the epidermal growth factor (EGF) in human epithelial cells is mediated by its binding to the external domain of the EGF receptor (EGF-R). The purpose of this study was to investigate whether growth arrest of tumors treated with anti-EGFR MAb (EMD 55900) was dependent on EGF-R expression and distinct histopathologic criteria of those neoplasms. Nine different adenocarcinomas, squamous cell carcinomas and two neoplastic epithelial cell lines (A431 and Detroit 562), which were characterized by high EGF-R expression, were xenotransplanted onto NMRI-nu/nu mice and treated with an anti-EGF-R antibody (EMD 55900). Results revealed that EGF-R expression and distinct histopathologic growth patterns play an important role for the therapeutic effect of the EGF-R antibody treatment. Tumors with high epithelial cellularity and little connective tissue responded to EMD 55900 treatment to a greater degree of growth reduction than tumors with lower cellularity. These results will be helpful for evaluation of patients who would benefit from tumor therapy with anti-EGF-R antibody.
Objectives: The possible effects of exposure to neurotoxic substances such as gasoline, diesel fuel, paint, varnish, and solvents on the pathogenesis of obstructive sleep apnea were examined.
Methods: Four hundred and forty-three persons with incident obstructive sleep apnea were recruited within the framework of a case-referent study. A reference population (N=397) was included as the first reference group. In addition 106 patients whose sleep laboratory findings confirmed that they were not suffering from obstructive sleep apnea were then included as a second reference group. Data were gathered with a questionnaire which had to be filled out by the persons with obstructive sleep apnea (cases) and the referents themselves. In the assessment of occupational exposure the questionnaires were filled out by the subjects themselves, and a job-exposure matrix was also used. Data were analyzed using logistic regression to control for age, region, body mass index, cigarette smoking, and alcohol consumption.
Results: None of the exposures were statistically significantly associated with obstructive sleep apnea. There was no correlation with occupation. Only current activities in service occupations revealed an increased odds ratio, 1.6 (95% confidence interval 1.1-2.4).
Conclusions: No suggestion was found of an association between exposure to solvents and obstructive sleep apnea.
Background: Severe allergic reactions during rush-specific immunotherapy (Rush-SIT) may occur in the treatment of hymenoptera sting allergy. The objective of the present study was to examine the characteristics of allergic reactions during Rush-SIT in a cohort of patients with allergy towards hymenoptera venom in the mediterranean population of Albania.
Methods: A retrospective study was performed using the clinical reports of 37 patients with venom of bee (apinae), wasp (vespidae, subfamily vespinae) or paperwasp (vespidae, subfamily polistinae) allergy treated with Rush-SIT between 1987 and 1996. After hymenoptera sting allergy diagnosis according to anamnesis and intracutaneous tests the patient were treated with Rush-SIT. The protocol lasted 3 - 4 d with an increase in the concentration from 0.01 microg/ml to 100 microg/ml. Anaphylactic reactions were classified according to the Mueller-classification.
Results: The frequency of reactions during Rush-SIT for bee-venom was 4.7% and for wasp-venom was 1.5% (p < 0.01). The mean frequency of reactions of Mueller grade II for the bee-venom Rush-SIT patients during the first 4 d (= 26 injections) was 0.73 and for the wasp-venom Rush-SIT patients 0.15. No patient experienced a third-degree reaction. 94.6% of the patient supported an end dose of 100 microg.
Conclusions: Rush-SIT is a reliable method for the treatment of anaphylactic reactions to hymenoptera venom even in less developed countries. Bee-venom Rush-SIT was found to cause higher numbers allergic reactions than wasp or paperwasp Rush-SIT.
Orotracheale Keimverschleppung während der Umintubation und bei verschiedenen Tracheotomietechniken
(2002)
Langzeitbeatmete Patienten sind häufig von nosokomialen Pneumonien betroffen. Für diese Patienten stehen zur Optimierung des Airwaymanagement verschiedene Techniken zur Verfügung. In der vorliegenden Studie wurden diese Techniken (nasale Umintubation, konventionelle Tracheotomie und perkutane Tracheotomie einschließlich GWDF, PDT und TLT) auf eine Keimverschleppung aus den oberen in die unteren Atemwege untersucht. Bei insgesamt 200 Patienten erfolgte ein mikrobiologisches Monitoring durch Gewinnung von Rachen- und Trachealabstrichen am Morgen des Eingriffs und am darauffolgenden Tag. Abweichend hiervon wurde in der Gruppe der nasotracheal umintubierten Patienten statt eines Rachenabstrich ein Nasenabstrich gewonnen. Die Proben wurden mikrobiologisch hinsichtlich eines Wachstums von Bakterien bzw. Pilzen untersucht. Zur Differenzierung wurden bei jedem Isolat die biochemischen Eigenschaften und das antibiotische Resistenzverhalten erhoben. Die Eingriffe wurden im Mittel am 3. Tag (Umintubation), 8. Tag (konventionelle Tracheotomie und GWDF), 9. Tag (TLT) und 10. Tag (PDT) des Aufenthalts auf der Intensivstation durchgefiihrt. Bei 155 von 200 Patienten (77,5 %) gelang ein positiver Erregernachweis im Rachen- bzw. Nasenabstrich, bei 143 von 200 Patienten (71,5%) ein positiver Erregernachweis im Trachealsekret. Die am häufigsten isolierten Erreger waren S. aureus, Acinetobacter sp., Pseudomonas sp., Stenotrophomonas maltophilia und Candida sp.. Bezogen auf alle Erregernachweise (n = 859) funden sich in 165 Fällen grampositive Erreger (19,2 %), in 403 Fällen granmegative Erreger (46,9 %) und in den restlichen 291 Fällen Pilze (33,8 %). In der Gruppe der nasotracheal umintubierten Patienten kam es bei 10 von 40 Patienten (25,0 %) zu einem positiven postinterventionellen Nachweis eines Erregers im Trachealsekret, der vor der Intervention nur im Nasenabstrich nachgewiesen wurde. In den restlichen Gruppen erfolgte dieser postinterventionelle Erregernachweis im Trachealsekret bei je 6 von 40 Patienten (15 %) in den Gruppen PDT und TLT, sowie bei je 7 von 40 Patienten (17,5 %) in den Gruppen konventionelle Tracheotomie und GWDF. Die von uns ermittelte Inzidenz von Keimbesiedlungen der oberen Atemwege (77,5 %) und der unteren Atemwege (71,5 %) entspricht der allgemeinen Inzidenz bei beatmeten Intensivpatienten. Der hohe Anteil von gramnegativen Erregern (46,9 %) ist Ausdruck eines Wechsel des Erregerspektrums in den gramnegativen Bereich bei schwerstkranken Patienten auf Intensivstationen. Die TLT scheint aufgrund einer im Vergleich zu den anderen Verfahren nicht erhöhten Inzidenz einer Keimverschleppung aus den oberen in die unteren Atemwege als infektionsepidemiologisch risikoarme Technik. Die nasotracheale Umintubation weist im Vergleich zu den anderen Verfahren eine höhere, aber statistisch nicht signifikante Inzidenz von Keimverschleppungen auf. Die Nase stellt aufgrund ihrer Keimbesiedlung ein wesentliches Erregerreservoir dar, das im Zusammenhang mit der nasotrachealen Umintubation hinsichtlich nosokomialer Pneumonien eine Rolle spielen könnte.